1 = 2
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1 = 2
assume that... a = b
(a ^ 2) = ab
(a ^ 2) - ab = 0
2((a ^ 2) - ab) = 0
(a ^ 2) - ab = 2((a^2) - ab)
a(a - b) = 2a(a - b)
(a(a - b)) / (a(a - b)) = (2a(a - b)) / (a(a - b))
1 = 2
I kinda freaked out when I saw this today, until I realized why it happens... if a=b, then a-b=0... so the fact that you're dividing both sides by a(a - b) means that you are dividing by zero, thus the parts in bold are invalid (since (n / 0) is an illegal operation).
Anyone else got any more of these kind of equations?
(a ^ 2) = ab
(a ^ 2) - ab = 0
2((a ^ 2) - ab) = 0
(a ^ 2) - ab = 2((a^2) - ab)
a(a - b) = 2a(a - b)
(a(a - b)) / (a(a - b)) = (2a(a - b)) / (a(a - b))
1 = 2
I kinda freaked out when I saw this today, until I realized why it happens... if a=b, then a-b=0... so the fact that you're dividing both sides by a(a - b) means that you are dividing by zero, thus the parts in bold are invalid (since (n / 0) is an illegal operation).
Anyone else got any more of these kind of equations?
that statement is a bunch of logic fail long before you get to division. Its the reverse application of Occam's razor. You are supposed to reduce complexity, not increase it.
a = b
ok lets get b on the same side as a, so lets subtract b from both sides.
a - b = 0
at this point we are done, there is nothing more we need to do here. a = b as long as they are the same value.
even if you had a valid reason to multiply both sides by a, the approach is off
a = b
ok lets get b on the same side as a, so lets subtract b from both sides.
a - b = 0
at this point we are done, there is nothing more we need to do here. a = b as long as they are the same value.
even if you had a valid reason to multiply both sides by a, the approach is off
Last edited by funkyass on Mon Jan 12, 2009 8:05 pm, edited 1 time in total.
Does [Kevin] Smith masturbate with steel wool too?
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No, assuming that a = b (which of course means that they are both of the same value), everything except the bold-highlighted and underlined parts are valid. It's just once of those neat little tricks: you give them this equation and they are shocked that 1 somehow = 2, until they realize the the division by zero.
I could easily use this to make it look as if 1 = 9999 as well:
(a ^ 2) = ab
(a ^ 2) - ab = 0
9999((a ^ 2) - ab) = 0
(a ^ 2) - ab = 9999((a^2) - ab)
a(a - b) = 9999a(a - b)
(a(a - b)) / (a(a - b)) = (9999a(a - b)) / (a(a - b))
1 = 9999
But of course we know this isn't true; as has been mentioned, it's a mathematical practical-joke.
Yeah sure occam's razor. Keep things as simple as possible and all that, and use the least amount of assumptions possible, but that wasn't the point here.
I could easily use this to make it look as if 1 = 9999 as well:
(a ^ 2) = ab
(a ^ 2) - ab = 0
9999((a ^ 2) - ab) = 0
(a ^ 2) - ab = 9999((a^2) - ab)
a(a - b) = 9999a(a - b)
(a(a - b)) / (a(a - b)) = (9999a(a - b)) / (a(a - b))
1 = 9999
But of course we know this isn't true; as has been mentioned, it's a mathematical practical-joke.
Yeah sure occam's razor. Keep things as simple as possible and all that, and use the least amount of assumptions possible, but that wasn't the point here.
It was a necessary step to get to the part where you make it look like 1 = 2.even if you had a valid reason to multiply both sides by a, the approach is off
you must have sucked at algebra.
there is no reason to multiple both sides by a on the second line, nor is multiplication by 2 on the fourth line. Its not a practical joke, its a meme transmitted by those who never really paid much attention in junior high math.
heck, your proof is proving that.
a=b
a^2 = ab lets multiply by a for no good reason;
2a^2 = 2ab multiply by 2;
2a^2 - 2ab = 0 get all terms on one side;
2a(a-b) = 0 collect like terms;
a-b = (0/2a) divide by 2a
a = (0/2a) +b add b;
a = b since zero divided by anything is zero, we can toss (0/2a);
incompetence never leads to a practical joke.
a practical joke is disassembling a teachers car, and reassembling it in their office as a a fully electric vehicle. Shooting your own foot isn't a practical joke.
there is no reason to multiple both sides by a on the second line, nor is multiplication by 2 on the fourth line. Its not a practical joke, its a meme transmitted by those who never really paid much attention in junior high math.
heck, your proof is proving that.
a=b
a^2 = ab lets multiply by a for no good reason;
2a^2 = 2ab multiply by 2;
2a^2 - 2ab = 0 get all terms on one side;
2a(a-b) = 0 collect like terms;
a-b = (0/2a) divide by 2a
a = (0/2a) +b add b;
a = b since zero divided by anything is zero, we can toss (0/2a);
incompetence never leads to a practical joke.
a practical joke is disassembling a teachers car, and reassembling it in their office as a a fully electric vehicle. Shooting your own foot isn't a practical joke.
Does [Kevin] Smith masturbate with steel wool too?
- Yes, but don’t change the subject.
- Yes, but don’t change the subject.
...I suck at algebra. Heh.
Yeah, ok mum.
Hey, news flash: at no time during my creating this thread did I intend to be serious.
Psst psst: I didn't even create this; I got it from http://forums.xkcd.com/viewtopic.php?f=17&t=8119
Yeah, ok mum.
Hey, news flash: at no time during my creating this thread did I intend to be serious.

Psst psst: I didn't even create this; I got it from http://forums.xkcd.com/viewtopic.php?f=17&t=8119
there is no division by zero... zero is divided by a number, but nothing is divided by zero anywhere in any proofs in this thread.
it a classic incorrect proof... but for fucks sake understand why its incorrect...
it a classic incorrect proof... but for fucks sake understand why its incorrect...
Does [Kevin] Smith masturbate with steel wool too?
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Yes there is.funkyass wrote:there is no division by zero... zero is divided by a number, but nothing is divided by zero anywhere in any proofs in this thread.
it a classic incorrect proof... but for fucks sake understand why its incorrect...
IT'S THE LAST STEP.
He divides left and right by a value that's equal to 0/0.
Hello. Sorry. Have a nice day.
For instance I much prefer the one where it's much more subtly done. I shall go dig for it in case i still have it somewhere.
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<jmr> bsnes has the most accurate wiki page but it takes forever to load (or something)
Please allow me to re-iterate:there is no division by zero... zero is divided by a number, but nothing is divided by zero anywhere in any proofs in this thread.
it a classic incorrect proof... but for fucks sake understand why its incorrect...
I FUCKING KNOW IT'S AN INVALID PROOF.
I divide by a(a - b) to *intentionally falsely* get that a = 2a, and thus 1 = 2.
a=b, so a-b=0, thus a(a-b) = 0, thus n / a(a / b) = infinite, thus at the part where I divide by a(a / b), I am dividing by fucking zero, thus you suck for not either understanding the joke or have a fucking sense of mathematical humour, funkyass.
In my equations, these are the only invalid parts:
(a(a - b)) / (a(a - b)) = (2a(a - b)) / (a(a - b))
1 = 2
But they are SUPPOSED to be invalid, because that's part of the practical joke. I.e. as DataPath has mentioned, "it's a classic "proof" to mess with the minds of people who enjoy math. ". The idea is that the person doesn't notice the division by zero, thus doesn't realize why it falsely comes that 1 = 2. So they think "wtf".
Call it "hidden in plain sight", or whatever, because that's the whole point of mathematical pranks such as this: hiding an error in plain sight to provide a false conclusion in order to fuck with people's minds.
Geez funkyass, you need to learn to lighten-up. This mathematically-correct stress is not good for you

Last edited by ZH/Franky on Mon Jan 12, 2009 10:05 pm, edited 2 times in total.
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I found my favourite one. It is much more subtle. No dividing by zero bullshit. No sir.
It's actually interesting to find where it fucks up. :)
x²+x+1 = 0
x² = -x-1
Now we set x != 0
x=-1-1/x
Substitute that in the first equation...
x² - 1 - 1/x +1 = 0
x² - 1/x = 0
x² = 1/x
x³ = 1
x = 1 != 0, ok...
Substitute that in the first equation again...
1² + 1 + 1 = 0
3 = 0
Have fun suckers
It's actually interesting to find where it fucks up. :)
x²+x+1 = 0
x² = -x-1
Now we set x != 0
x=-1-1/x
Substitute that in the first equation...
x² - 1 - 1/x +1 = 0
x² - 1/x = 0
x² = 1/x
x³ = 1
x = 1 != 0, ok...
Substitute that in the first equation again...
1² + 1 + 1 = 0
3 = 0
Have fun suckers
Last edited by grinvader on Mon Jan 12, 2009 10:09 pm, edited 2 times in total.
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<jmr> bsnes has the most accurate wiki page but it takes forever to load (or something)
Show me.grinvader wrote:I found my favourite one. It is much more subtle. No dividing by zero bullshit. No sir.
It's actually interesting to find where it fucks up.
EDIT:
Ah, there it is. I'll take a look.
EDIT2:
I've been following that and seriously, the error must be quite subtle, with quite being an understatement. It'll take me a while to get this.
Last edited by ZH/Franky on Mon Jan 12, 2009 10:36 pm, edited 2 times in total.
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That one is actually lawlcorrect.DataPath wrote:I like the "girls = evil" proof
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<jmr> bsnes has the most accurate wiki page but it takes forever to load (or something)
(there was something unrelated to this discussion previously here, but it was a lie; i was trying to test the "other people are gullible" theory)DataPath wrote:I like the "girls = evil" proof
HEY GRIN:
x² - 1/x = 0
is only true when x = 1At any other time (i.e. if x != 1), the fact that it's x^2 - the reciprocal of x (aka 1/x), then
(((x^2) - (1/x))) > 0
There's also the very fact that
x²+x+1 = 0 (your first equation)
is only true if x = 0 (you mention that x != 0, so immediately we know that the first equation is explicitly (and not implicitly) false.
So... what's the prize?
Last edited by ZH/Franky on Mon Jan 12, 2009 11:00 pm, edited 7 times in total.
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Since when is 0²+0+1 = 0 ? Your prize is my finger at your face and nelson laughing in the background.Franky wrote:x²+x+1 = 0 (your first equation)
is only true if x = 0 (you mention that x != 0, so immediately we know that the first equation is explicitly (and not implicitly) false.
You only partially cornered the fallacy of the steps (you got a consequence, not the source). Try harder.
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<jmr> bsnes has the most accurate wiki page but it takes forever to load (or something)
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The second step is only true if a = b = 0. So in reality, all you have proved is 0=0.2((a ^ 2) - ab) = 0
(a ^ 2) - ab = 2((a^2) - ab)
There is no point to posting this whole thing. 1 does not equal 2. If you are freaking out about this, it is because you suck at math and logic.
<pagefault> i'd break up with my wife if she said FF8 was awesome
Buh, I give up. Being mathematically correct is not the objective here. Being mathematically inconsistent is the objective (with the intention to confuse the person looking at the puzzle).badinsults wrote:The second step is only true if a = b = 0. So in reality, all you have proved is 0=0.2((a ^ 2) - ab) = 0
(a ^ 2) - ab = 2((a^2) - ab)
There is no point to posting this whole thing. 1 does not equal 2. If you are freaking out about this, it is because you suck at math and logic.
I do not suck at mathematics and logic.
...shit. Well, I'll dig further into it tomorrow (need sleep).grin wrote:Since when is 0²+0+1 = 0 ? Your prize is my finger at your face and nelson laughing in the background.
You only partially cornered the fallacy of the steps (you got a consequence, not the source). Try harder.
I honestly don't know how I figured that 0^2 + 0 + 1 = 0.
Last edited by ZH/Franky on Mon Jan 12, 2009 11:50 pm, edited 4 times in total.
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